Topology: Complete Metric Spaces |
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[ This article was updated on 8 Mar 13; the universal property is now in terms of Cauchy-continuous maps. ] On an intuitive level, a complete metric space is one where there are “no gaps”. Formally, we have: Definition. A metric space (X, d) is said to be complete if every Cauchy sequence in X converges.
Proposition 1. A subset of a complete metric space X is complete if and only if it’s closed in X. Proof. Both directions use theorem 1 here. If Y is closed in X, then any Cauchy sequence in Y is also Cauchy in X and hence must converge to some a in X; then a must lie in Y by the theorem. Conversely, if Y is a non-closed subset of X, then there is a sequence in Y converging to a in X, outside Y. This sequence is Cauchy since it’s convergent in X, but it doesn’t converge in Y; thus Y is not complete. ♦ Proposition 2. If Proof. We know (from proposition 3 here) that if a sequence Exercise Suppose Answer (highlight to read) : Yes, each projection map πn : X → Xn is uniformly continuous. So a Cauchy sequence (xn)1, (xn)2, (xn)3, … gives rise to a Cauchy sequence in each Xn. Each of these converges, to say, an in Xn. Then by proposition 4 here, we see that (xn)1, (xn)2, (xn)3, … converges to (an). ♦ It turns out there’s a unique way of embedding any metric space into a “smallest” complete metric space. Definition. A metric space Y is a completion of metric space X if: X is a metric subspace of Y; Y is complete; and X is dense in Y.Suppose Classical example: the completion of Q, under the Euclidean metric, is R. The key property of the completion is the following. Universal Property of Completion. Suppose Minor Note. Since g is continuous, it’s automatically Cauchy-continuous here since Y is complete: indeed, if Proof. Uniqueness: if g, g’ satisfy Only existence remains: we denote the metric of X and Y by d and that of Z by d’. Suppose To show g is well-defined: suppose Clearly Finally, we need to show g is continuous. By theorem 6 here, it suffices to show that if Prove that if f had been uniformly continuous, so is the induced g. Answer (highlight to read). The following replaces the last paragraph in the proof of universal property. Let ε>0. There exists δ>0 such that whenever x, x’ in X satisfies d(x, x’) N, we have It remains to show Step 6 then tells us that |
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